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Furthermore, the theorem that binom n k frac n! k! (n-k)! already assumes 0! is defined to be 1. Otherwise this would be restricted to 0 ltk lt n. A reason that we do define 0! to be 1 is so that we can cover those edge cases with the same formula, instead of having to treat them separately. We treat binomial coefficients like binom 5 6 separately already the theorem assumes ... This aspect of 1 34quot X 14quot X 17039 Lvl 19e Menards plays a vital role in practical applications.

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Moreover, the theorem that binom n k frac n! k! (n-k)! already assumes 0! is defined to be 1. Otherwise this would be restricted to 0 ltk lt n. A reason that we do define 0! to be 1 is so that we can cover those edge cases with the same formula, instead of having to treat them separately. We treat binomial coefficients like binom 5 6 separately already the theorem assumes ... This aspect of 1 34quot X 14quot X 17039 Lvl 19e Menards plays a vital role in practical applications.

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• abstract algebra - Prove that 112 - Mathematics Stack Exchange.
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• Formal proof for (-1) times (-1) 1 - Mathematics Stack Exchange.
• What is the value of 1i? - Mathematics Stack Exchange.
• factorial - Why does 0! 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange.
• Why is 1 not a prime number? - Mathematics Stack Exchange.

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